I’m not a lawyer (nor married), so my understanding is limited, but if both spouses agree to divorce (with or without agreeing on the exact conditions e.g. childcare), then that would constitute a no fault divorce. It seems to get messier if one spouse doesn’t want to consent to the divorce, then the notion of fault starts appearing. And that’s where my incomplete knowledge stops, both on the letter of the law and how it is applied in practice. The judge seems to have a lot of latitude as to whether the fault, if any, leads to consequences (financial reparations are a possibility).